Notes:

(1) Put your name and social security number on your Scantron.

(2) Mark your Scantron with dark pencil marks only.

(3) Any erasures must be complete.

(4) Turn in ONLY your Scantron.

(5) Each question is worth 2 points, for a total of 100 points on this test.

(6) Chose the one best answer for each question.

(7) Blanks in front of questions are be used for answers before transferring them to the Scantron

(8) Keep your test booklet, so you can grade your test and find out your score from the web. Key will be posted, probably tomorrow sometime, in Adobe Acrobat format and in the normal web format called HTML. The HTML version of the key will be poorly formatted due to the limitations of HTML. Web address for the key and grading scale is: http://www.csupomona.edu/~shbryant/110keys.htm. Or, you can get there from my home page, www.csupomona.edu/~shbryant. The grading scale will probably be posted in 2-3 days.

(9). Scantrons are due on front desk by 3:40 PM today. No work will be accepted after this time.

(10). No one will be allowed in to take the test after the first person to complete the test leaves the room.

__c__ 1. [Ch. 14] DNA replication is said to be: a. conservative b. dispersive c. semiconservative d. replicative e. none of the preceding

__b__ 2. [Ch. 14] Receiving a severe, blistering sunburn as a child increases your chances of getting which of the following later in life? a. basal cell carcinoma b. melanoma c. squamous cell carcinoma d. multiple myeloma e. leukemia

__d__ 3. [Ch. 14] A chart showing which RNA codon specifies which amino acid in a protein is a chart of the: a. translational ribosome b. aminoaceylation of tRNAs c. the "cloverleaf" structure of the various tRNAs d. the genetic code e. the human genome

__c__ 4. [Ch. 14] The information of the RNA is ___________ into the amino acid sequence of a protein. Which of the following words belongs in the blank in the preceding sentence? a. transcribed b. transmutated c. translated d. reverse transcribed e. templated

__b__ 5. [Ch. 16] The insulin manufactured by bacterial "factories" is the product of a human gene and therefore: a. useful only in animal model studies b. identical to human-produced insulin c. useful to a small proportion of compatible human diabetics d. identical to bacterial insulin e. none of the preceding

__d__ 6. [Ch. 16] Restriction enzymes are found in: a. DNA b. RNA c. viruses d. bacteria e. humans

__c__ 7. [Ch. 16] PCR is accomplished by: a. heating the sample DNA, DNA polymerase, and DNA primers to 100°C b. heating the sample to 100°C, cooling it down, adding DNA polymerase and DNA primers, and further cooling it down to 60°C c. repeatedly heating and cooling a mixture of the sample, the DNA polymerase, and the DNA primers d. cooling a mixture of the sample, the DNA polymerase, and the DNA primers to 40°C, and then heating it to 100°C e. simply heating a mixture of the sample, the DNA polymerase, and the DNA primers to 120°C

__b__ 8. [Ch. 16] Animals that possess the genes of a different species integrated into the DNA of their reproductive cells: a. are large in size than their non-genetically-engineered counterparts b. can pass those genes to their offspring c. have more chromosomes than their normal counterparts d. cannot successfully reproduce e. can reproduce only normal offspring, not genetically-engineered offspring

__a__ 9. [Ch. 17] A zygote with only one X chromosome and no second sex chromosome (XO) develops into a: a.  female with Turner syndrome b. male with Kleinfelter syndrome c. relatively normal female d. female with Kleinfelter syndrome e. male with Turner syndrome

__c__ 10. [Ch. 17] In genetic mapping, which act as genetic markers? a. identical alleles of each gene b. identical alleles of different genes c. different alleles of each gene d. different chromosomes e. identical genes on different chromosomes

__c__ 11. [Ch. 17] The human genome contains approximately how many base pairs of DNA? a. 1 million b. 1 billion c. 3 billion d. 10 billion e. 30 billion

__d_ 12. [Ch. 17] Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are both: a.  treatments for genetic deficiencies in adults b. used to screen adults for genetic deficiencies c. used to screen adults and children for genetic deficiencies d. used to prenatally screen for genetic deficiencies e. treatments for genetic deficiencies in children

__c__ 13. [Ch. 31] In human cells, the testes produce sperm at an average rate of how many per day? a. 1 million b. 10 million c. 30 million d. 1 billion e. 30 billion

__c__14. [Ch. 31] All humans produce identical gonadotropic hormones that elicit different responses, depending on whether the individual is male or female. This shows that the type of response is controlled by: a. the anterior pituitary b. the secreted hormone c. the nature of the target cell d. the hypothalamus e. the cerebral cortex

__d__ 15. [Ch. 31] A reliable biochemical test for pregnancy is to examine the blood or urine for the presence of: a. LH b. FSH c. estrogen d. HCG e. progesterone 

__e__16. [Ch. 32] Fertilization, cleavage, and blastulation are early stages of development in which of the following: a. mammals only b. humans only c. reptiles only d. mammals and reptiles only e. most animals

__c__17. [Ch. 32] The series of mitotic divisions a zygote undergoes immediately after fertilization is: a. gastrulation b. blastulation c. cleavage d. chorionosis e. development

__b__ 18. [Ch. 32] The formation of fingers from paddle-like structures, separation of the eyelid into upper and lower eyelids, and the absorption of a tadpole's tail are examples of: a. induction b. systematic cell death c. germ layer differentiation d. morphogenesis e. gastrulation

__b__ 19. [Ch. 32] Which is an example of postembryonic development? a. the development of primary sex characteristics b. the development of reproductive capacity c. morphogenesis d. organogenesis e. neurulation

__e__ 20. [Ch. 40] Oceans contain which percent of the earth's total water? a. 50 b. 60.4 c. 70 d. 85.7 e. 97.2

__c__ 21. [Ch. 40] Tropical rainforests and temperature deciduous forests are very different biomes. What is the most important factor determining which of these biomes will exist in an area? a. sunlight b. rainfall c. temperature d. diversity of animal species e. diversity of plant species  

__c__ 22. [Ch. 40] Where are most of the nutrients in a lake during the summer months in the northern hemisphere? a. at or near the surface b. in the limnetic zone c. at or near the bottom d. at or near the thermocline e. none of the preceding

__a__ 23. [Ch. 40] Which contributes to making coastal waters so productive? a. the receive nutrient runoff from nearby land areas b. they are relatively deep c. they are cold d. they do not experience upwelling e. they do not experience mixing

__d__ 24. [Ch 41] Which is an abiotic component of ecosystems? a. algae b. plants c. lobsters d. sunlight e. bacteria

__a__ 25. [Ch. 41] Trace amounts of molybdenum are required by some organisms. This element would be considered : a. an abiotic resource b. an abiotic condition c. an ecological equivalent d. a primary producer e. a primary consumer

__b__26. [Ch. 41] Biological magnification poses most danger to which of the following animals? a.  frog b. hawk c. moth d. bacterium e. snake

__e__27. [Ch. 41] In which area could secondary succession occur? a. new volcanic island b. river delta c. dunes d. bare rocks e. clearcut forest

__b__28. [Ch. 43] Environmental resistance can result from: a. unlimited environmental resources b. limited environmental resources c. the intrinsic growth rate of a population d. exponential growth e. the biotic potential of a population

__d__ 29. [Ch. 43] The only meaningful decrease in human population over the past 12,000 years was caused by the: a. agricultural revolution b. World War I c. World War II d. the black death e. AIDS

__c__ 30. [Ch. 43] The human population's first growth surge came about as a result of: a. the development of agriculture b. the industrial revolution c. the use of tools d. the invention of the printing press e. a nomadic lifestyle

__d__ 31. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] In gel electrophoresis: a. the positive charge of the DNA fragment causes the DNA to move b. the positive charge of the DNA fragment determines the actual speed of its movement c. the negative charge of the DNA fragment determines the actual speed of its movement d. the length of the DNA fragment determines its actual speed of movement e. positive charge of the DNA fragment is attracted tot he positive end of the gel

__e__ 32. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] A DNA probe might be used to: a. make a large number of copies of a DNA fragment b. cut DNA, leaving it with "sticky ends" c. transfer DNA from a gel to a nylon membrane d. transfer DNA into a plasmid e. none of the preceding (answer = identify or find specific pieces of DNA)

__c__ 33. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] The easiest way to separate DNA fragments by size is to use a technique called : a. a DNA probe b. polymerase chain reaction c. gel electrophoresis d. host plasmids e. host proteins

__a__ 34. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] Which of the following carries a near-copy of the DNA code into the cytoplasm to be used as a translation template? a. mRNA  b. tRNA  c. ATP  d. DNA sense strand #1  e. ribouracylic acid 

__e__ 35. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] The three major components of translation are: a. mRNA, tRNA, DNA  b. mRNA, sRNA, tRNA  c. DNA sense strand, DNA antisense strand, ribosome  d. 30s ribosome, 50s ribosome, DNA sense strand  e. mRNA, tRNA, ribosome

__b__36. [Lecture - mol gen & biotech] A key development in the process to clone mammals from adult cells was the discovery that doing this to the cells before transferring the nuclei greatly increased the chance of success: a. inserting a bacterial transferase gene into the cells   b. starving the cells   c. heating the cells gently   d. giving the cells extra nutrients  e. freezing the cells quickly, then thawing them slowly

__a__ 37. [Lecture - Reproduction] Ovulation, which is the release of an egg from a Graafian follicle, is most directly triggered by which of the following hormonal changes? a. peak in LH b. peak in FSH c. peak in estrogen d. decline in estrogen e. peak in progesterone

__b__ 38. [Lecture - Reproduction] In the human male, the organ in which the vas deferens joins the urethra is called the: a. seminal vesicle b. prostate c. bulbourethral gland d. penis e. bladder

__e__39. [Lecture - Reproduction] The birth control pill works by: a. maintaining a constant level of testosterone, which, being the male hormone, prevents eggs from developing b. chemically killing off the egg cells c. suppressing menstruation d. shutting off the supply of estrogen  e. suppressing the LH peak

__b__ 40. [Lecture - Reproduction] The long, coiled tube in the scrotum, attached to the testes, in which sperm mature, is the: a. endometrium b. epididymis c. fimbrae d. prostate e. bulbourethral duct

__a__ 41. [Lecture - Reproduction] Testosterone production is induced by which of the following? a. LH b. FSH c. progesterone d. estrogen e. FSH-RF

__e__ 42. [Lecture - Reproduction] In which of the following organs is estrogen produced? a. oviduct b. pituitary gland c. endometrium d. hypothalamus e. ovary

__d__ 43. [Lecture - Reproduction] Which of the following is responsible for *maintaining* the endometrium? a. FSH b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone e. ICSH

__c__44. [Lecture - Reproduction] In both sexes, heart rate, blood pressure, and muscular tension continue to increase in which phase of the sexual response cycle? a. initiation b. excitement c. plateau d. orgasm e. resolution

__a__45. [Lecture - STDs] In primary syphilis, an infected person develops an initial symptom of : a. a chancre b. a rash c. an infection which can attack practically any body part d. a plugged up oviduct or vas deferens are plugged up e. a weakened immune system, with a lower number of helper T-cells.

__c__46. [Lecture - STDs] In tertiary syphilis: a. the infected person develops a chancre b. the infected person develops a rash c. the infection attacks practically any body part d. the oviduct or the vas deferens are plugged up e. the person dies because the immune system no longer protects the person

__b__47. [Lecture - STDs] Gonorrhea: a. is a disease of the eye b. is more common than syphilis c. is caused by a spirochaete (corkscrew-shaped bacterium) d. can be passed by women, but affects men only e. none of the preceding

__a__ 48. [Lecture - Development] In human development, there are 2 cell layers and 2 cavities during which week of development? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10

__b__ 49. [Lecture - Development] The neural tube closes, limb buds and a tail form, and the heart begins to beat during which week of development? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10

__d__ 50. [Lecture - Development] All major external structures, except the genitalia, have developed by the end of which week of development, resulting in the change of name from embryo to fetus? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10